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Zheyuan Wu
2026-03-23 11:50:31 -05:00
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@@ -94,3 +94,48 @@ For this section, we will show that $h_*$ is an isomorphism.
#### Lemma for equality of homomorphism
Let $h,k: (X,x_0)\to (Y,y_0)$ be continuous maps. If $h$ and $k$ are homotopic, and if **the image of $x_0$ under the homotopy remains $y_0$**. The homomorphism $h_*$ and $k_*$ from $\pi_1(X,x_0)$ to $\pi_1(Y,y_0)$ are equal.
<details>
<summary>Proof</summary>
Let $H:X\times I\to Y$ be a homotopy from $h$ to $k$ such that
$$
H(x,0)=h(x), \qquad H(x,1)=k(x), \qquad H(x_0,t)=y_0 \text{ for all } t\in I.
$$
To show $h_*=k_*$, let $[f]\in \pi_1(X,x_0)$ be arbitrary, where
$f:I\to X$ is a loop based at $x_0$, so $f(0)=f(1)=x_0$.
Define
$$
F:I\times I\to Y,\qquad F(s,t)=H(f(s),t).
$$
Since $H$ and $f$ are continuous, $F$ is continuous. For each fixed $t\in I$, the map
$$
s\mapsto F(s,t)=H(f(s),t)
$$
is a loop based at $y_0$, because
$$
F(0,t)=H(f(0),t)=H(x_0,t)=y_0
\quad\text{and}\quad
F(1,t)=H(f(1),t)=H(x_0,t)=y_0.
$$
Thus $F$ is a based homotopy between the loops $h\circ f$ and $k\circ f$, since
$$
F(s,0)=H(f(s),0)=h(f(s))=(h\circ f)(s),
$$
and
$$
F(s,1)=H(f(s),1)=k(f(s))=(k\circ f)(s).
$$
Therefore $h\circ f$ and $k\circ f$ represent the same element of $\pi_1(Y,y_0)$, so
$$
[h\circ f]=[k\circ f].
$$
Hence
$$
h_*([f])=[h\circ f]=[k\circ f]=k_*([f]).
$$
Since $[f]$ was arbitrary, it follows that $h_*=k_*$.
</details>

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@@ -70,6 +70,12 @@ If we let $j:A\to X$ be the inclusion map, then $r\circ j=id_A$, and $j\circ r\s
$S^1$ is a deformation retract of $\mathbb{R}^2-\{0\}$
---
Consider $\mathbb{R}^2-p=q$, the doubly punctured plane. "The figure 8" space is the deformation retract.
![Retraction of doubly punctured plane](https://notenextra.trance-0.com/Math4202/Retraction_of_doubly_punctured_plane.jpg)
</details>
#### Theorem for Deformation Retract

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@@ -0,0 +1,89 @@
# Math4202 Topology II (Lecture 25)
## Algebraic Topology
### Deformation Retracts and Homotopy Type
Recall from last lecture, Let $A\subseteq X$, if there exists a continuous map (deformation retraction) $H:X\times I\to X$ such that
- $H(x,0)=x$ for all $x\in X$
- $H(x,1)\in A$ for all $x\in X$
- $H(a,t)=a$ for all $a\in A$, $t\in I$
then the inclusion map$\pi_1(A,a)\to \pi_1(X,a)$ is an isomorphism.
<details>
<summary>Example for more deformation retract</summary>
Let $X=\mathbb{R}^3-\{0,(0,0,1)\}$.
Then the two sphere with one point intersect is a deformation retract of $X$.
---
Let $X$ be $\mathbb{R}^3-\{(t,0,0)\mid t\in \mathbb{R}\}$, then the cyclinder is a deformation retract of $X$.
</details>
#### Definition of homotopy equivalence
Let $f:X\to Y$ and $g:Y\to X$ be a continuous maps.
Suppose
- the map $g\circ f:X\to X$ is homotopic to the identity map $\operatorname{id}_X$.
- the map $f\circ g:Y\to Y$ is homotopic to the identity map $\operatorname{id}_Y$.
Then $f$ and $g$ are **homotopy equivalences**, and each is said to be the **homotopy inverse** of the other.
$X$ and $Y$ are said to be **homotopy equivalent**.
<details>
<summary>Example</summary>
Consider the punctured torus $X=S^1\times S^1-\{(0,0)\}$.
Then we can do deformation retract of the glued square space to boundary of the square.
After glueing, we left with the figure 8 space.
Then $X$ is homotopy equivalent to the figure 8 space.
</details>
Recall the lemma, [Lemma for equality of homomorphism](https://notenextra.trance-0.com/Math4202/Math4202_L23/#lemma-for-equality-of-homomorphism)
Let $f:X\to Y$ and $g:X\to Y$, with homotopy $H:X\times I\to Y$, such that
- $H(x,0)=f(x)$ for all $x\in X$
- $H(x,1)=g(x)$ for all $x\in X$
- $H(x,t)=y_0$ for all $t\in I$, and $y_0\in Y$ is fixed.
Then $f_*=g_*:\pi_1(X,x_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_0)$ is an isomorphism.
We wan to know if it is safe to remove the assumption that $y_0$ is fixed.
<details>
<summary>Idea of Proof</summary>
Let $k$ be any loop in $\pi_1(X,x_0)$.
We can correlate the two fundamental group $f\cric k$ by the function $\alpha:I\to Y$, and $\hat{\alpha}:\pi_1(Y,y_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_1)$. (suppose $f(x_0)=y_0, g(x_0)=y_1$), it is sufficient to show that
$$
f\circ k\simeq \alpha *(g\circ k)*\bar{\alpha}
$$
</details>
#### Lemma
Let $f,g:X\to Y$ be continuous maps. let $f(x_0)=y_0$ and $g(x_0)=y_1$. If $f$ and $g$ are homotopic, then there is a path $\alpha:I\to Y$ such that $\alpha(0)=y_0$ and $\alpha(1)=y_1$.
Defined as the restriction of the homotopy to $\{x_0\}\times I$, satisfying $\hat{\alpha}\circ f_*=g_*$.
Imagine a triangle here:
- $\pi_1(X,x_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_0)$ by $f_*$
- $\pi_1(Y,y_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_1)$ by $\hat{\alpha}$
- $\pi_1(Y,y_1)\to \pi_1(X,x_0)$ by $g_*$

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@@ -30,4 +30,5 @@ export default {
Math4202_L22: "Topology II (Lecture 22)",
Math4202_L23: "Topology II (Lecture 23)",
Math4202_L24: "Topology II (Lecture 24)",
Math4202_L25: "Topology II (Lecture 25)",
}