update notations and fix typos
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@@ -98,7 +98,7 @@ Proof:
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Then $P[a$ inverting $g]\sim P[a$ inverts $f$ all $q(n)]$ times. $<(1-\frac{1}{p(n)})^{q(n)}=(1-\frac{1}{p(n)})^{np(n)}<(e^{-\frac{1}{p(n)}})^{np(n)}=e^{-n}$ which is negligible function.
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EOP
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QED
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_we can always force the adversary to invert the weak one-way function for polynomial time to reach the property of strong one-way function_
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