diff --git a/pages/Math4111/Exam_reviews/Math4111_Final.md b/pages/Math4111/Exam_reviews/Math4111_Final.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..1c97d2e --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/Math4111/Exam_reviews/Math4111_Final.md @@ -0,0 +1,164 @@ +# Math 4111 Final Review + +## Weierstrass M-test + +Let $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} f_n(x)$ be a series of functions. + +The weierstrass M-test goes as follows: + +1. $\exists M_n \geq 0$ such that $\forall x\in E, |f_n(x)| \leq M_n$. +2. $\sum M_n$ converges. + +Then $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} f_n(x)$ converges uniformly. + +Example: + +### Ver.0 + +$\forall x\in [-1,1)$, + +$$ +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n} +$$ + +converges. (point-wise convergence on $[-1,1)$) + +$\forall x\in [-1,1)$, + +$$ +\left| \frac{x^n}{n} \right| \leq \frac{1}{n} +$$ + +Since $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}$ diverges, we don't know if the series converges uniformly or not using the weierstrass M-test. + +### Ver.1 + +However, if we consider the series on $[-1,1]$, + +$$ +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n^2} +$$ + +converges uniformly. Let $M_n = \frac{1}{n^2}$. This satisfies the weierstrass M-test. And this series converges uniformly on $[-1,1]$. + +### Ver.2 + +$\forall x\in [-\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}]$, + +$$ +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n} +$$ + +converges uniformly. Since $\left| \frac{x^n}{n} \right|=\frac{|x|^n}{n}\leq \frac{(1/2)^n}{n}\leq \frac{1}{2^n}=M_n$, by geometric series test, $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} M_n$ converges. + +M-test still not applicable here. + +$$ +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n} +$$ + +converges uniformly on $[-\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}]$. + +> Comparison test: +> +> For a series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$, if +> +> 1. $\exists M_n$ such that $|a_n|\leq M_n$ +> 2. $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} M_n$ converges +> +> Then $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ converges. + +## Proving continuity of a function + +If $f:E\to Y$ is continuous at $p\in E$, then for any $\epsilon>0$, there exists $\delta>0$ such that for any $x\in E$, if $|x-p|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-f(p)|<\epsilon$. + +Example: + +Let $f(x)=2x+1$. For $p=1$, prove that $f$ is continuous at $p$. + +Let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Let $\delta=\frac{\epsilon}{2}$. Then for any $x\in \mathbb{R}$, if $|x-1|<\delta$, then + +$$ +|f(x)-f(1)|=|2x+1-3|=|2x-2|=2|x-1|<2\delta=\epsilon. +$$ + +Therefore, $f$ is continuous at $p=1$. + +_You can also use smaller $\delta$ and we don't need to find the "optimal" $\delta$._ + +## Play of open covers + +Example of non compact set: + +$\mathbb{Q}$ is not compact, we can construct an open cover $G_n=(-\infty,\sqrt{2})\cup (\sqrt{2}+\frac{1}{n},\infty)$. + +Every unbounded set is not compact, we construct an open cover $G_n=(-n,n)$. + +Every k-cell is compact. + +Every finite set is compact. + +Let $p\in A$ and $A$ is compact. Then $A\backslash \{p\}$ is not compact, we can construct an open cover $G_n=(\inf(A)-1,p)\cup (p+\frac{1}{n},\sup(A)+1)$. + +If $K$ is closed in $X$ and $X$ is compact, then $K$ is compact. + +Proof: + +Let $\{G_\alpha\}_{\alpha\in A}$ be an open cover of $K$. + +> $A$ is open in $X$, if and only if $X\backslash A$ is closed in $X$. + +Since $X\backslash K$ is opened in $X$, $\{G_\alpha\}_{\alpha\in A}\cup \{X\backslash K\}$ is an open cover of $X$. + +Since $X$ is compact, there exists a finite subcover $\{G_{\alpha_1},\cdots,G_{\alpha_n},X\backslash K\}$ of $X$. + +Since $X\backslash K$ is not in the subcover, $\{G_{\alpha_1},\cdots,G_{\alpha_n}\}$ is a finite subcover of $K$. + +Therefore, $K$ is compact. + +## Cauchy criterion + +### In sequences + +Def: A sequence $\{a_n\}$ is Cauchy if for any $\epsilon>0$, there exists $N$ such that for any $m,n\geq N$, $|a_m-a_n|<\epsilon$. + +Theorem: In $\mathbb{R}$, every sequence is Cauchy if and only if it is convergent. + +### In series + +Let $s_n=\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k$. + +Def: A series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ converges if the sequence of partial sums $\{s_n\}$ converges. + +$\forall \epsilon>0$, there exists $N$ such that for any $m>n\geq N$, + +$$ +|s_m-s_n|=\left|\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} a_k\right|<\epsilon. +$$ + +## Comparison test + +If $|a_n|\leq b_n$ and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n$ converges, then $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ converges. + +Proof: + +Since $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n$ converges, $\forall \epsilon>0$, there exists $N$ such that for any $m>n\geq N$, + +$$ +\left|\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} b_k\right|<\epsilon. +$$ + +By triangle inequality, + +$$ +\left|\sum_{k=n}^{m}a_k\right|\leq \sum_{k=n+1}^{m} |a_k|\leq \sum_{k=n+1}^{m} b_k<\epsilon. +$$ + +Therefore, $\forall \epsilon>0$, there exists $N$ such that for any $m>n\geq N$, + +$$ +|s_m-s_n|=\left|\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} a_k\right|<\epsilon. +$$ + +Therefore, $\{s_n\}$ is Cauchy, and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ converges. +