# Math4201 Topology I (Lecture 15) ## Continue on convergence of sequences ### Closure and convergence #### Proposition in metric space, every convergent sequence converges to a point in the closure If $X$ is a metric space, $A\subset X$, and $x\in \overline{A}$, then there is a sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\subseteq A$ such that $x_n\to x$.
Proof Let $U_n=B_{\frac{1}{n}}(x)$ be a sequence of open neighborhoods of $x$. Since $x\in \overline{A}$ and $U_n$ is an open neighborhood of $x$, then $U_n\cap A\neq \emptyset$. Take $x_n\in U_n\cap A$, we claim that $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\subseteq A$ that $x_n\to x$. Take an open neighborhood $U$ of $x$. Then by the definition of metric topology, there is $r>0$ such that $B_r(x)\subseteq U$. let $N$ be such that $\frac{1}{N} #### Corollary $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ with the box topology is not metrizable $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ is $\text{Map}(\mathbb{N},\mathbb{R})=\mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}\times \cdots$. > Note that $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ is Hausdorff. So not all Hausdorff spaces are metrizable.
Proof Otherwise, the last proposition holds for $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ with the box topology. Last time we showed that this is not the case.
#### Definition of first countability axiom A topological space $(X,\mathcal{T})$ satisfies the **first countability axiom** if for any point $x\in X$, there is a sequence of open neighborhoods of $x$, $\{V_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ such that any open neighborhood $U$ of $x$ contains one of $V_n$. Note that if we take $U_n=V_1\cap V_2\cap \cdots \cap V_n$, then any open neighborhood $U$ that contains $V_N$, then it also contains $U_n$ for all $n\geq N$. > As the previous prof, for metric space, it is natural to try $V_n=B_{\frac{1}{n}}(x)$ for some $x\in X$. #### Proposition on first countability axiom Rewrite the [Proposition of metric space, every convergent sequence converges to a point in the closure](#proposition-in-metric-space-every-convergent-sequence-converges-to-a-point-in-the-closure) We can have the following: If $(X,\mathcal{T})$ satisfies the first countability axiom, then every convergent sequence converges to a point in the closure. We can easily prove this by takeing the sequence of open neighborhoods $\{V_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ instead of $U_n=B_{\frac{1}{n}}(x)$. #### Proposition of continuous functions Let $f:X\to Y$ be a map between two topological spaces. 1. If $f$ is continuous, then for any convergent sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ in $X$ converging to $x$, the sequence $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty$ converges to $f(x)$. 2. If $X$ is equipped with the metric topology and for any convergent sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\to x$ in $X$, the sequence $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty\to f(x)$ in $Y$, then $f$ is continuous.
Exercise Find an example of a function $f:X\to Y$ which is not continuous but for any convergent sequence in $X$, $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\to x$, the sequence $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty\to f(x)$.
Solution Consider $X=\mathbb{R}$ with complement finite topology and $Y=\mathbb{R}$ with the standard topology. Take identity function $f(x)=x$. This function is not continuous by trivially taking $(0,1)\subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and the complement of $(0,1)$ is not a finite set, so the function is not continuous. However, for every convergent sequence in $X$, $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\to x$, the sequence $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty\to f(x)$ trivially.
Proof Part 1: Let $f:X\to Y$ be a continuous map and $$ \{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\subseteq X $$ converges to $x$. Want to show that $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty$ converges to $f(x)$. i.e. for any open neighborhood $U$ of $f(x)$, we want to show $f(x_n)$ is eventually in $U$. Take $f^{-1}(U)$. This is an open neighborhood of $x$ since $x_n\to x$. There is $N$ such that $\forall n\geq N$, we have $x_n\in f^{-1}(U)$, $f(x_n)\in U$. This implies that $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty$ converges to $f(x)$. Part 2: Let $f:X\to Y$ be a map between two topological spaces with $X$ being metric such that for any convergent sequence in $X$, $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\to x$ in $X$, we have $f(x_n)\to f(x)$ in $Y$. Want to show that $f$ is continuous. Recall that it suffice to show that for any $A\subseteq X$, $f(\overline{A})\subseteq \overline{f(A)}$. Take $y\in f(\overline{A})$. Then $y=f(x)$ with $x\in \overline{A}$. By the previous proposition, there is a sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty\subseteq A$ (since $X$ is a metric space) such that $x_n\to x$. By our assumption, $$ \{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty\to f(x) \tag{*} $$ Note that $\{f(x_n)\}_{n=1}^\infty$ is a sequence in $f(A)$ and ($*$) implies that $y=f(x)\in f(A)$ (by the first part of the proposition). This gives us the claim.
> [!NOTE] > > The second part of the proposition is also true when $X$ is not a metric space but satisfies the first countability axiom. #### Equivalent formulation of continuity If $(X,d)$ and $(Y,d')$ are metric spaces and $f:X\to Y$ is a map, then $f$ is continuous if and only if for any $x_0\in X$ and any $\epsilon > 0$, there exists $\delta > 0$ such that if $\forall n\in X, d(x_n,x_0)<\delta$, then $d'(f(x_n),f(x_0))<\epsilon$. Proof similar to the $X=Y=\mathbb{R}$ case.