# Math4202 Topology II (Lecture 25) ## Algebraic Topology ### Deformation Retracts and Homotopy Type Recall from last lecture, Let $A\subseteq X$, if there exists a continuous map (deformation retraction) $H:X\times I\to X$ such that - $H(x,0)=x$ for all $x\in X$ - $H(x,1)\in A$ for all $x\in X$ - $H(a,t)=a$ for all $a\in A$, $t\in I$ then the inclusion map$\pi_1(A,a)\to \pi_1(X,a)$ is an isomorphism.
Example for more deformation retract Let $X=\mathbb{R}^3-\{0,(0,0,1)\}$. Then the two sphere with one point intersect is a deformation retract of $X$. --- Let $X$ be $\mathbb{R}^3-\{(t,0,0)\mid t\in \mathbb{R}\}$, then the cyclinder is a deformation retract of $X$.
#### Definition of homotopy equivalence Let $f:X\to Y$ and $g:Y\to X$ be a continuous maps. Suppose - the map $g\circ f:X\to X$ is homotopic to the identity map $\operatorname{id}_X$. - the map $f\circ g:Y\to Y$ is homotopic to the identity map $\operatorname{id}_Y$. Then $f$ and $g$ are **homotopy equivalences**, and each is said to be the **homotopy inverse** of the other. $X$ and $Y$ are said to be **homotopy equivalent**.
Example Consider the punctured torus $X=S^1\times S^1-\{(0,0)\}$. Then we can do deformation retract of the glued square space to boundary of the square. After glueing, we left with the figure 8 space. Then $X$ is homotopy equivalent to the figure 8 space.
Recall the lemma, [Lemma for equality of homomorphism](https://notenextra.trance-0.com/Math4202/Math4202_L23/#lemma-for-equality-of-homomorphism) Let $f:X\to Y$ and $g:X\to Y$, with homotopy $H:X\times I\to Y$, such that - $H(x,0)=f(x)$ for all $x\in X$ - $H(x,1)=g(x)$ for all $x\in X$ - $H(x,t)=y_0$ for all $t\in I$, and $y_0\in Y$ is fixed. Then $f_*=g_*:\pi_1(X,x_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_0)$ is an isomorphism. We wan to know if it is safe to remove the assumption that $y_0$ is fixed.
Idea of Proof Let $k$ be any loop in $\pi_1(X,x_0)$. We can correlate the two fundamental group $f\cric k$ by the function $\alpha:I\to Y$, and $\hat{\alpha}:\pi_1(Y,y_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_1)$. (suppose $f(x_0)=y_0, g(x_0)=y_1$), it is sufficient to show that $$ f\circ k\simeq \alpha *(g\circ k)*\bar{\alpha} $$
#### Lemma Let $f,g:X\to Y$ be continuous maps. let $f(x_0)=y_0$ and $g(x_0)=y_1$. If $f$ and $g$ are homotopic, then there is a path $\alpha:I\to Y$ such that $\alpha(0)=y_0$ and $\alpha(1)=y_1$. Defined as the restriction of the homotopy to $\{x_0\}\times I$, satisfying $\hat{\alpha}\circ f_*=g_*$. Imagine a triangle here: - $\pi_1(X,x_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_0)$ by $f_*$ - $\pi_1(Y,y_0)\to \pi_1(Y,y_1)$ by $\hat{\alpha}$ - $\pi_1(Y,y_1)\to \pi_1(X,x_0)$ by $g_*$