3.1 KiB
Math4201 Topology I (Lecture 19)
Quotient topology
More propositions
Proposition for continuous and quotient maps
Let X,Y,Z be topological spaces. p is a quotient map from X to Y and g is a continuous map from X to Z.
Moreover, if for any y\in Y, the map g is constant on p^{-1}(y), then there is a continuous map f: Y\to Z satisfying f\circ p=g.
Proof
For any y\in Y, take x\in X such that p(x)=y (since p is surjective).
Define f(y)\coloneqq g(x).
Note that this is well-defined and it doesn't depend on the specific choice of x that p(x)=y because g is constant on p^{-1}(y).
Then we check that f is continuous.
Let U\subseteq Z be open. Then we want to show that f^{-1}(U)\subseteq Y is open.
Since p is a quotient map, this is equivalent to showing that p^{-1}(f^{-1}(U))\subseteq X is open. Note that p^{-1}(f^{-1}(U))=g^{-1}(U).
Since g is continuous, g^{-1}(U) is open in X.
Since g^{-1}(U) is open in X, p^{-1}(g^{-1}(U)) is open in Y.
In general,
p^{-1}(y)is called the fiber ofpovery. Thegmust be constant on the fiber.We may define
p^{-1}(y)as the equivalence class ofyifpis defined using the equivalence relation. By definitionp^{-1}([x])is the element ofxthat are\sim x.
Additional to the proposition
Note that f is unique.
It is not hard to see that f is a quotient map if and only if g is a quotient map. (check book for detailed proofs)
Definition of saturated map
Let p:X\to Y be a quotient map. We say A\subseteq X is saturated by p if A=p^{-1}(B) for some B\subseteq Y.
Equivalently, if x\in A, then p^{-1}(p(x))\subseteq A.
Proposition for quotient maps from saturated sets
Let p:X\to Y be a quotient map and q be given by restriction of p to A\subseteq X. q:A\to p(A), q(x)=p(x),x\in A.
Assume that A is saturated by p.
- If
Ais closed or open, thenqis a quotient map. - If
pis closed or open, thenqis a quotient map.
Proof
We prove 1 and assume that A is open, (the closed case is similar).
clearly, q:A\to p(A) is surjective.
In general, restricting the domain and the range of a continuous map is continuous.
Since A is saturated by p, then p^{-1}(p(A))=A is open, so p(A) is open because p is a quotient map. Let V\subseteq p(A) and q^{-1}(V)\subseteq A is open. Then q^{-1}(V)=p^{-1}(V).
(i) q^{-1}(V)\subseteq p^{-1}(V): x\in q^{-1}(V)\implies q(x)\in V. Then p(x)=q(x)\in V
(ii) p^{-1}(V)\subseteq q^{-1}(V): x\in p^{-1}(V)\implies p(x)\in V\subseteq p(A). This implies that x\in p^{-1}(p(A))=A since A is saturated by p. Therefore x\in q^{-1}(V).
Since A is open in X, any open subspace of A is open in X. In particular, q^{-1}(V)=p^{-1}(V) is open in X.
Since p is a quotient map, and p^{-1}(V) is open in X, V is open in Y. So V\subseteq p(A) is open in Y.
This shows q is a quotient map.
We prove 2 next time...