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Math4121 Lecture 13

New book Chapter 2

Riemann's motivation: Fourier series


F(x) = \frac{a_0}{2} + \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_k \cos(kx) + b_k \sin(kx)

a_k = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \cos(kx) dx

b_k = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \sin(kx) dx

To study the convergence of the Fourier series, we need to study the convergence of the sequence of partial sums. (Riemann integration)

Why Riemann integration?

Let


((x)) = \begin{cases} 
x-\lfloor x \rfloor & x \in [\lfloor x \rfloor, \lfloor x \rfloor + \frac{1}{2}) \\
0 & x=\lfloor x \rfloor + \frac{1}{2}\\
x-\lfloor x \rfloor - 1 & x \in (\lfloor x \rfloor + \frac{1}{2}, \lfloor x \rfloor + 1] \end{cases}

We define


f(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{((nx))}{n^2}=\lim_{N\to\infty}\sum_{n=1}^{N} \frac{((nx))}{n^2}

(i) The series converges uniformly over x\in[0,1].


\left|f(x)-\sum_{n=1}^{N} \frac{((nx))}{n^2}\right|\leq \sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{|((nx))|}{n^2}\leq \sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}<\epsilon

As a consequence, f(x)\in \mathscr{R}.

(ii) f has a discontinuity at every rational number with even denominator.


\begin{aligned}
\lim_{h\to 0^+}f(\frac{a}{2b}+h)-f(\frac{a}{2b})&=\lim_{h\to 0^+}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{((\frac{na}{2b}+h))}{n^2}-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{((\frac{na}{2b}))}{n^2}\\
&=\lim_{h\to 0^+}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{((\frac{na}{2b}+h))-((\frac{na}{2b}))}{n^2}\\
&=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\lim_{h\to 0^+}\frac{((\frac{na}{2b}+h))-((\frac{na}{2b}))}{n^2}\\
&>0
\end{aligned}

Back to the fundamental theorem of calculus

Suppose f is integrable on [a,b], then


F(x)=\int_a^x f(t)dt

F is continuous on [a,b].

if f is continuous at x_0, then F is differentiable at x_0 and F'(x_0)=f(x_0).

Theorem (Darboux's theorem)

If \lim_{x\to a^-}f(x)=L^-, then \lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}=L^-.

Proof:


h\sup_{x\in [0,h]}f(x)\geq F(a+h)\geq \inf_{x\in [0,h]}f(x)h

Consequently,


f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{((nx))}{n^2}

then


F(x)=\int_0^x f(t)dt

is continuous on [0,1].

However, since \lim_{x\to 0^+}f(x)\neq \lim_{x\to 0^-}f(x) holds for all the rational numbers with even denominator, F is not differentiable at all the rational numbers with even denominator.

Moral: There exists a continuous function on [0,1] that is not differentiable at any rational number with even denominator. (Dense set)

Weierstrass function


g(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a^n \cos(b^n \pi x)

where 0<a<1 and ab>1+\frac{3}{2}\pi.

g(x) is continuous on \mathbb{R} but nowhere differentiable.

If we change our integral, will be differentiable at most points?